Allen's logic seems a tad bit circular. High wages may have helped spur some demand for machines, but what caused Britain's relatively high wages in the first place?
Surely there were economic/political elements that caused higher wages that, in a synergistic fashion, created demand for machines and probably vice versa.
Allen's logic seems a tad bit circular. High wages may have helped spur some demand for machines, but what caused Britain's relatively high wages in the first place?
Surely there were economic/political elements that caused higher wages that, in a synergistic fashion, created demand for machines and probably vice versa.